HELP DUE NOW BRAINLEST AND A THANKS

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

5x4=20

4×4=16

16+20=36

Answer:

AB=23.40cm

Step-by-step explanation:

(AB)²=(AB)²+(BC)²

(AB)²=22×22+8×8

=484+64

(AB)²=548

AB=23.40 cm

hope it helps...

have a great day!!

Answer:

What is the minimum:

What is the maximum:

What is the range:

How many data are displayed in the table?

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:it is b because u multiply.

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug it into the calculator

Answer:

7a + 2b

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

4a + 3b + 3a - b ← collect like terms

4a + 3a + 3b - b

= 7a + 2b

Answer:

the porbality is 50%, since if we make a diagram a circle and we split it in two the possibility is 50% since the circle is 100%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6 millimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

All the sides on a square are equal and a square has four sides. For perimeter you add up all the sides which in this case have to add up to 24.

So, 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 24

Answer:

Height is 25in

Base is 18in

Step-by-step explanation:

225=[x*(x+7)]/2=[x^2+7x]/2

450=x^2+7x

x^2+7x-450=0

(x+25)(x-18)=0

Answer:

7 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the whole numbers in the equation:

3+4=7

This will get you 7 1/3

Answer:

First sample size, [tex]n_{x}[/tex] = 20

Second sample size, [tex]n_{y}[/tex] = 20

Sample mean of first sample, [tex]\bar{x}[/tex] = 5.44

Sample mean of second sample, [tex]\bar{y}[/tex] = 3.49

Sample Standard deviation of first sample, [tex]\sigma_{x}[/tex] = 1.75

Sample Standard deviation of second sample, [tex]\sigma_{y}[/tex] = 1.13

Step-by-step explanation:

Given - The sample mean tip amount for the 20 parties to which the waitress gave her name was $5.44, with a standard deviation of $1.75. These statistics were $3.49 and $1.13, respectively, for the 20 parties to which the waitress did not give her name. The data were not strongly skewed in either group.

To find - Use appropriate symbols for the six numbers reported in this paragraph.

Proof -

First sample size, [tex]n_{x}[/tex] = 20

Second sample size, [tex]n_{y}[/tex] = 20

Sample mean of first sample, [tex]\bar{x}[/tex] = 5.44

Sample mean of second sample, [tex]\bar{y}[/tex] = 3.49

Sample Standard deviation of first sample, [tex]\sigma_{x}[/tex] = 1.75

Sample Standard deviation of second sample, [tex]\sigma_{y}[/tex] = 1.13

Step-by-step explanation:

x= 0, y = 2

have a great day

Answer:

6/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6/9 I think that's the answer

Answer:

a) 0.0879 = 8.79% probability the detector will identify a random mile of roadway as irregular.

b) 0.3379 = 33.79% probability it actually is irregular

Step-by-step explanation:

Conditional Probability

We use the conditional probability formula to solve this question. It is

[tex]P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}[/tex]

In which

P(B|A) is the probability of event B happening, given that A happened.

[tex]P(A \cap B)[/tex] is the probability of both A and B happening.

P(A) is the probability of A happening.

a. What is the probability the detector will identify a random mile of roadway as irregular?

99% of 3%(it is irregular).

6% of 97%(false positive). So

[tex]p = 0.99*0.03 + 0.06*0.97 = 0.0879[/tex]

0.0879 = 8.79% probability the detector will identify a random mile of roadway as irregular.

b. Given a randomly selected miles has been identified as irregular by the detector, what is the probability it actually is irregular? Give your answer to four decimal places.

Conditional probability:

Event A: Identified as irregular

Event B: It is irregular.

0.0879 = 8.79% probability the detector will identify a random mile of roadway as irregular, which means that [tex]P(A) = 0.0879[/tex]

99% of 3% arre irregulars identified as, which means that [tex]P(A \cap B) = 0.03*0.99 = 0.0297[/tex]

The desired probability is:

[tex]P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} = \frac{0.0297}{0.0879} = 0.3379[/tex]

0.3379 = 33.79% probability it actually is irregular

Answer:

The answer is b Maria will run 1.75 miles more than her goal.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this you take the total number of miles divided by miles per day. 17.5 divided by 2.75 is approximately six slightly over. That remaining time is less than 1 day so she can’t do 2.75 over her goal and the other options talk about going under so that leaves us with option two.

Hope this helps.

Answer: D. There is a negative linear relationship between the mean number of triples per game and year.

Step-by-step explanation: This claim is supported by the interval. The interval contains plausible values for the slope of the linear regression line relating year and mean number of triples per game. Since all the values in the interval are negative, the interval supports the claim that increases in the year are associated with decreases in the mean number of triples per game.

Answer: 8 days

Step-by-step explanation:

K=14+8x

J=35+5x

when K=J they will have the same amount

14+8x=35+5x

8x=21+5x

3x=21

x=7 days until they have the same amount- 8 days until she has more

Answer:

$324

Step-by-step explanation:

if

=> 1hr = $8

then,

=> 40.5 x 8 = 324

=> 40.5 hr = $324

She earned $324 this week.

hope this helps and is right :)

Answer:

$324

Step-by-step explanation:

So, First we have to establish what we are solving for, in this equation we are solving for how much money Katie made this week after working 40.5 hours at a salary of $8 per hour.

To find how much Katie made we have to multiply 40.5 and 8!

Let's make it easier by splitting 40.5 into 40 and 0.5

40 × 8 = 320

0.5 × 8 = 4

320 + 4 = 324

Katie made $324 this week!

Hope this Helps! :)

Have any questions? Ask below in the comments and I will try my best to answer.

-SGO

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Sin(35) =  opposite / hypotenuse

Sin(35) = 4 / hypotenuse                  Multiply both sides by the hypotenuse

hypotenuse * sin(35) = 4                  Divide by Sin(35)

hypotenuse = 4/Sin(35)

Sin(35) = 0.5736

hypotenuse = 4/0.5736

hypotenuse = 6.9737

Rounded answer 6.97

Answer:

40,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It would be 40,000

Explanation:

It is in the ten thousands digit.

solution in attachment

hope it helps

Answer:

The possibility of rolling a  

3

on a fair die and getting tails on a coil is  

1

12

. Based on this probability, there are  

12

possible outcomes. As only 1 out of 12 possiblities would get this outcome, it is not a likely outcome.

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling a  

3

on a fair die is  

1

6

because there is only one  

3

out of  

6

numbers. The probability of getting tails on a coin is  

1

2

because there are  

2

possibilities and tails is one of them. To get the probability of rolling a  

3

on a fair die and getting tails on a coil, we multiply their probabilities:

1

6

⋅

1

2

=

1

12

There are  

12

possiblities because for each of the  

6

possibilites for rolling a die, there are  

2

possibilites for flipping a coin.

9514 404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that the costs add up this way:

  trip cost = bus rental + 2 × (cost of play)

Given that ...

The above equation can be rewritten as ...

  65 = 10 + 2x . . . . . . the desired equation

__

Solving for x, we have ...

  55 = 2x . . . . subtract 10

  27.50 = x . . . . divide by 2

The cost of one play is $27.50.

Answer:

[tex] \huge\mathfrak\pink{S} \huge\mathfrak\purple{o} \huge\mathfrak\blue{l} \huge\mathfrak\red{u} \huge\mathfrak\green{t} \huge\mathfrak\pink{i}\huge\mathfrak\purple{o}\huge\mathfrak\red{n}\huge\mathfrak\orange{➔}\ [/tex]

by using Pythagoras law:

h²=p²+b²

10²=z²+8²

z²=100-64

z=√36=6

z=6 units.

Answer:

You can select all of them is 40320 ways.

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of arrangements of n elements:

The number of arrangements of n elements, that is, the number of ways in which n elements can be chosen without replacement, is given by:

[tex]A_{n} = n![/tex]

In this question:

8 elements, so:

[tex]A_{8} = 8! = 40320[/tex]

You can select all of them is 40320 ways.

Hi there!

[tex]\large\boxed{P = 22 cm}[/tex]

To find the perimeter, we must find the length of the rectangle.

We know the area is 24, thus:

A = l × w

24 = l × 3

24/3 = l = 8 cm

Find the perimeter using the formula:

P = 2l + 2w

Plug in the solved length and width:

P = 2(8) + 2(3) = 16 + 6 = 22 cm.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{17}{24}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you have to make all of the fractions have a common denominator. You can find the LCM (least common multiple) of 6 and 8.

6, 12, 18, 24 . . .

8, 16, 24 . . .

Their LCM is 24.

So now, change the fractions:

1         4

----  =  -----

6        24

Remember, whatever you multiply the bottom by to get to 24 is what you multiply the top number by. You have the make sure the fractions are equivalent.

1         3

----  =  -----

8        24

Remember, whatever you multiply the bottom by to get to 24 is what you multiply the top number by. You have the make sure the fractions are equivalent.

So if we have 1 band practice, we know that

24        1

----  =   ----  =   1

24        1

So the fraction of practice time spent playing music is:

[tex]\frac{24}{24}-\frac{3}{24} -\frac{4}{24}=\frac{17}{24}[/tex]

Answer:

J)  [tex]\frac{17}{24}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{3}{8} +\frac{1}{3} \\\\\frac{9}{24} +\frac{8}{24} = \frac{17}{24}[/tex]

Find the common denominator ^^

Answer:

17/24

Step-by-step explanation:

3/8× 3/3=9/24

1/3×8/8=8/24

8/24 +9/24= 17/24