Help help math math math please

If a system has at least one solution, it is said to be consistent . If a consistent system has exactly one solution, it is independent . If a consistent system has an infinite number of solutions, it is dependent . When you graph the equations, both equations represent the same line.

πr²/2

22×7×7/7×2

77cm²

πr²/2×2

πr²

22/7×3.5×3.5

38.5cm²

77-38.5=38.5cm²

Answer:

The ramp's horizontal distance is the distance in the x-axis. So the ramp's vertical distance I.e y-axis is 14 inches. And its length which is actually the hypotenuse ofthe right angled triangle 16 feet. But let's convert feet to inches first. 1 feet makes 12 inches Hence 16 feet makes 192 inches. From pythagoras a^2 =b^2 + c^2 where a the hypotenuse is 192 and b is 14. C is the ramp's horizontal distance. So we have (192)^2 = (14)^2 + c^2 C^2 = 192^2 - 14^2 = 36668 C = 191.48 From SOHCAHTOA. We have to use Sin So sin theta = (14/192) Theta = sin^(-1) (14/192) = 4.1815. Yes, it meets the FAC standard since the ramp's angle is less than 4.78

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 65. You just add the number of computer towers that fall into that category. So your sum would look like this:

Divisor: 5+ 12 + 21 + 15 + 12 = 65

The question does not ask you to do any more than figure out what you will be dividing by. Thank goodness it does not ask what you will be dividing into which is a whole lot more complicated problem.

Answer:

Yes Jeff is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  b.  256 m²

  d.  324 cm²

  f.  35 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

The shaded area is the difference between the areas of the outer rectangle and the inner one:

  A = (24 m)(12 m) -(8 m)(4 m) = 288 m² -32 m² = 256 m²

__

The steps are all the same height and width. Their height is (18 cm)/3 = 6 cm, so the height of the middle step is 2×6 cm = 12 cm. The area of the figure will be the product of the base and the average step height:

  A = (27 cm)(12 cm) = 324 cm²

You might be able to visualize this as cutting off the top step even with the middle on and placing it on top of the bottom step.

__

The triangle area formula applies.

  A = 1/2bh = 1/2(4" +10")(5") = 35 in²

_____

Additional comment

The formula for area of a rectangle is ...

  A = LW . . . . . the product of length and width

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation: x represents the number of classes, not the cost of classes.

Step-by-step explanation:

-0.5 cause decimals and fraction are not included

Answer: (-7,-5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Because when you mark point M and A if you mirror point M and A on the x Axis then you will get (-7,-5)

Answer:

[tex]-\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

If we take points [tex](1,1)[/tex] and [tex](4,0)[/tex] from the line, we can determine the slope:

[tex]m=\frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x}=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\frac{0-1}{4-1}=\frac{-1}{3}=-\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Therefore, the slope of the line is [tex]-\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

The population 5 years from now would be 60482

The population growth rate is given as:

[tex]r(t) = 400(1 + \frac{2t}{24 + t^2})[/tex]

The value of t, 5 years from now is represented as:

t = 5

Substitute 5 for t in the function r(t).

So, we have:

[tex]r(5) = 400(1 + \frac{2 \times 5}{24 + 5^2})[/tex]

Evaluate the exponent

[tex]r(5) = 400(1 + \frac{2 \times 5}{24 + 25})[/tex]

Evaluate the products

[tex]r(5) = 400(1 + \frac{10}{24 + 25})[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]r(5) = 400(1 + \frac{10}{49})[/tex]

Divide 10 by 49

[tex]r(5) = 400(1 + 0.204)[/tex]

This gives

[tex]r(5) = 400(1.204)[/tex]

Expand

[tex]r(5) = 481.6[/tex]

The current population is given as 60000.

So, the population (P) 5 years from now would be

[tex]P = 60000 + 481.6[/tex]

[tex]P = 60481.6[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]P = 60482[/tex]

Hence, the population (P) 5 years from now would be 60482

Read more about population functions at:

https://brainly.com/question/20115298

Answer:

C and B

Step-by-step explanation:

20%=1/5 so D+1/5D

1.2 = 120%

Step-by-step explanation:

We can prove KK'M and LL'M are congruent by using ASA (Angle side angle). Angle side angle means that if we know two angles and one side, we can prove that they are congruent.

First, we know that ∠KMK' = ∠LML' because they are alternative angles. (That's our fist A)

Next, The problem states that KK' and LL' are equal. (so that gives our S)

Finally, we know that ∠ML'L and ∠KK'M are both 90 degrees, making them both equal. (That's our final A)

Hope this helped :D

Answer:

Option A: [tex]\{0,\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{3\pi}{2}\}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=2sin^2(\frac{\theta}{2}), [0,2\pi)[/tex]

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=2sin^2(\frac{\theta}{2})[/tex]

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=2sin(\frac{\theta}{2})sin(\frac{\theta}{2})[/tex]

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=2(\sqrt{\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{2}})(\sqrt{\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{2}})[/tex]

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=2(\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{2})[/tex]

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=\frac{2-2cos(\theta)}{2}[/tex]

[tex]sin^2(\theta)=1-cos(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]1-cos^2(\theta)=1-cos(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]-cos^2(\theta)=-cos(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]cos^2(\theta)=cos(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]cos^2(\theta)-cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]cos(\theta)[cos(\theta)-1]=0[/tex]

[tex]cos(\theta)=0[/tex]

[tex]\theta=\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{3\pi}{2}[/tex]

[tex]cos(\theta)-1=0[/tex]

[tex]cos(\theta)=1[/tex]

[tex]\theta=0[/tex]

Therefore, the solutions contained within the interval are [tex]\{0,\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{3\pi}{2}\}[/tex]

Helpful Tips:

Half-Angle Formula: [tex]sin(\frac{\theta}{2})=\pm\sqrt{\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{2}}[/tex]

Pythagorean Identity: [tex]sin^2(\theta)+cos^2(\theta)=1,sin^2(\theta)=1-cos^2(\theta),cos^2(\theta)=1-sin^2(\theta)[/tex]

[tex]\sin^2 \theta = 2 \sin^2 \left(\dfrac{\theta}2 \right)\\\\\implies \sin^2 \theta = 1- \cos 2 \cdot \dfrac{\theta}2\\\\\implies \sin^2 \theta = 1- \cos \theta \\\\\implies 1-\cos^2 \theta = 1 - \cos \theta \\\\\implies -\cos^2 \theta - \cos \theta = 0\\\\\implies \cos^2 \theta - \cos \theta = 0\\\\\implies \cos \theta( \cos \theta -1) = 0\\\\\\\text{Now,}\\\\\cos \theta = 0\\\\\implies \theta = n\pi + \dfrac{\pi}2\\\\\text{For n = 0,1 and}~ [0.2\pi)\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\theta = \dfrac{\pi}2, \dfrac{3\pi}2[/tex]

[tex]\text{Again,} \\\\\cos \theta -1= 0\\\\\implies \cos \theta = 1\\\\\implies \theta = 2n\pi\\\\\text{For n= 0 and}~ [0,2\pi)\\\\\theta = 0\\\\\text{Combine solutions,}\\\\\theta = 0, \dfrac{\pi}2, \dfrac{3\pi}2[/tex]

Answer:

.2

Step-by-step explanation:

3:15 to 4:30 is 75 minutes

she had to assemble 15 since there were already 67 made

divide 15/75

.2 per minute

Answer:

$4.35

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value of a random variable X, often denoted as E(X), indicates the probability-weighted average of all possible values/events. The general formula of expected value is

[tex]\mathrm{E(\textit X \mathrm)} = \displaystyle\sum_{\mathclap{i=1}}^{k} \ X \times P(X) \\ \\ \\ = X_{1} \times P(X_{1}) \ + \ X_{2} \times P(X_{2}) \ + \ X_{3} \times P(X_{3}) + \ \cdots \ + X_{k} \times P(X_{k})[/tex].

Therefore, the expected value of the winnings from a game is

[tex]\mathrm{E(\textit X \mathrm)} \ = \ 1 \times 0.35 \ + \ 2 \times 0.2 \ + \ 5 \times 0.1 + \ 8 \times 0.2 \ + 10 \times 0.15 \\ \\ = \ 4.35 \ \ (\mathrm{nearest \ hundredth})[/tex].

Answer:

y = -30

Step-by-step explanation:

3 (y + 8) = 2y - 6

3y + 24 = 2y -6                Distribute the 3

y + 24 = -6                       Subtract 2y on both sides

y = -30                              Subtract 24 on both sides

Answer:

possible arrangements

CCNNN

CNCNN

CNNCN

CNNNC

NCCNN

NCNCN

NCNNC

NNCCN

NNCNC

NNNCC

Ten ways to arrange the window

for any one of these there are

NHL

7 ways to fill the first position

6 ways to fill the second

5 ways to fill the third

7•6•5 = 210 ways to select the NHL jerseys

CFL

8 ways to fill the first position

7 ways to fill the second

8•7 = 56 ways to select the CFL jerseys

210•56 = 11760 ways to select a set of 5 jerseys

11760•10 = 117 600 possible ways to arrange the window

Answer:

an = 1/4 * an-1

a1 = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

2, 1/2, 1/8, 1/32

To find the common ratio, take the second term and divide by the first term

1/2 ÷ 2

1/2 * 1/2

1/4

The common ratio is 1/4

1/2 * 1/4 = 1/8  and 1/8 *1/4 = 1/32

The first term is a1 so a1 = 2

an = the common ratio * an-1

an = 1/4 * an-1

Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The common ratio = 1/2 / 2 =  1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4.

Also 1/8 / 1/2 =2/8 = 1/4 and 1/32 / 1/8 = 1/32 * 8 = 1/4

an = 1/4 * an-1 is the answer.

Answer: b

Step-by-step explanation: graph b is correct hope it helps

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

x increases by 2, and y increases by 3 consistently

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me brainliest

Check the picture below.

Answer:

it is the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

Squaring a number means multiplying the same number by itself.

For example,

[tex]\\2 \cdot 2 =2^2\\\\a\cdot a =a^2~~ \\\\ (a+1)(a+1) =(a+1)^2 \\\\ (x^{10}+1)(x^{10}+1) =(x^{10}+1)^2[/tex]

2-4 is -2 and -5 times -2 is 10 divided by 2 is 5 and 5 +3 is 8. and 8 times 3 is 24. PEMDAS

Answer:

→24

Step-by-step explanation:

Evaluate: {3+[−5(2−4)÷2]}⋅3

= {3+[-5(2-4)÷2]}.3

= {3+[-5(-2)÷2]}.3

= {3+[10÷2]}.3

= {3+[10÷2]}.3

= {3+[10÷2]}.3

= {3+[10/2]}.3

= {3+[5]}.3

= {3+5}.3

= 8.3

= 8*3

= 24 Ans.

I do not know English :33333

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3x3 then 4 x v ?

Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

60% of 125 is 75

75+125=200

hope this helped!!!

Answer:

I think the answer is $200.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps.

Answer:

946 square Inches

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you should split up the shape into parts.

1st part 28x7

2nd part 30x25

We are multplying simply because

Area = Length x Width

Now that we have split up the parts lets multply them and add them togeher.

28 x 7 =  196

30 x 25 = 750

196 +750 = 946

So the area of this figure is 946 square inches.