Answers
The structure on this list which facilitates the rare occurrence of the exchange of genetic information between two bacterial cells is Bacterial conjugation.
What is bacterial conjugation?
Conjugation is the process by which one bacteria directly transmits genetic material to another. During conjugation, one bacteria functions as the donor and the other as the recipient of the genetic material. The donor bacteria has a DNA sequence known as the F-factor, or fertility factor.
The F-factor enables the donor to create a thin, tube-like structure known as a pilus, which the donor utilizes to communicate with the recipient. When the pilus brings the two bacteria close, the donor bacterium transmits genetic material to the receiving bacterium. The genetic material is often in the form of a plasmid, or a tiny, circular bit of DNA. The genetic material exchanged during conjugation frequently gives the receiving bacteria with genetic information.
Therefore, it is bacterial conjugation through which DNA is transferred among prokaryotes.
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Related Questions
According to the data, as the size of the neuron increases, what happens to the conduction velocity? How does the data prove that?
Answers
Answer:
The conduction velocity increases.
Explanation:
The data proves that, since with each increase in diameter, the conduction velocity gets faster.
Brainliest, please!the hormone secreted by the thymus that stimulates the maturation of lymphocytes into t cells of the immune system is known as: thymition thymosin thyroxine thymosine submit
Answers
Thymosin is the hormone of the thymus, and it invigorates the advancement of sickness battling White blood cells.
Thymosin is a 5-Da polypeptide chemical discharged by the thymus organ. Thymosin α1 animates the improvement of forerunner Immune system microorganisms in the thymus to develop White blood cells.
It is utilized to treat chemotherapy-actuated immunosuppression and to improve the adequacy of flu and hepatitis B antibodies in immunocompromised patients.
Concentrates on various creature and human models demonstrate that thymosin assumes a part in the separation of various White blood cell subpopulations. The speculation introduced is that an ordinary insusceptible equilibrium relies vigorously on the presence of thymosin-initiated silencer or controller Lymphocytes.
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How are somatic cells different from gametes? (1 point)
O Somatic cells contain half the number of chromosomes.
O Somatic cells are sex cells.
O Somatic cells do not go through cell division.
O Somatic cell mutations are not passed to the next generation.
Answers
Somatic cells, also known as body cells, undergo a mitotic process of cell division in which only one division takes place. Unlike somatic cells, gametes (otherwise known as sex cells) go through cell division twice in a process known as meiosis. Somatic cells differ from gametes because essentially, somatic cells undergo mitosis which doesn’t pass the mutations down to the next generation.
When an enzyme is present in the R-conformation it usually binds which of the following with the greatest affinity? An allosteric activator O A competitive inhibitor O An allosteric inhibitor O The enzyme substrate
Answers
An allosteric activator is often best bound by an enzyme when it is in the R-conformation.
What is an enzyme's R state?It is in the relaxed state, also known as the R-state, which is a catalytically more active shape when the substrate or positive modulator is present. The enzyme is in a less active shape known as the taut state or T-state when the negative modulator is present.
What does place when an allosteric activator binds to an enzyme?In order to improve the enzyme's active site(s)' affinity for its substrate, allosteric activators attach to regions of an enzyme other than its active site (s). Allosteric inhibitors alter the enzyme's active site to make substrate binding more difficult.
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xi. Organs such as the ileum which absorb substances are often modified in ways which increase the rate of absorption. Which of the following would you not expect to increase the rate of absorption?
A Coiled tube.
B A slow blood flow.
C Many finger like projections.
D Many blood capillaries.
Answers
In the cells of multicellular organisms, proteins are assembled in the (1 point)
A. nucleus.
B .mRNA.
C.chromatin.
D. ribosome.
Answers
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The ribosome is a cellular organelle that plays a crucial role in protein synthesis, using information from the cell's DNA and messenger RNA (mRNA) to assemble the appropriate sequence of amino acids into a protein. This process is known as translation.
an antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the an antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the tibialis posterior. soleus. fibularis. extensor digitorum longus. tibialis anterior.
Answers
The tibialis anterior is the muscle that is an antagonist to the gastrocnemius.
There must be an equal and opposite reaction to every action. Muscles are the same way! Take, for instance, moving your arm. In the event that you twist your arm at the elbow, one muscle is fixing to pull your arm up; In order to provide a counterbalance to the first muscle, another muscle is relaxing simultaneously. When you relax your arm, the muscles that pull your arm straight take on opposing roles.
These opposites are referred to as agonist muscles, or muscles that contract to cause movement. and antagonist muscles, which are those that move in the opposite direction of the agonist.
Our legs have antagonist muscles like the large gastrocnemius muscle, which is in the calf of our leg. When our leg is bent at the knee, the gastrocnemius acts as an agonist, but when our leg is straightened, it acts as an antagonist. The tibialis anterior is the muscle that runs opposite the gastrocnemius and runs along our lower leg at the shin.
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ATP is required for RNA-Pol to move down dsDNA, hydrolysis of ATP provides the energy to unwind the strands in front of RNAP while rewinding them behind. O True O False
Answers
True. ATP is required for RNA-Pol to move down dsDNA, hydrolysis of ATP provides the energy to unwind the strands in front of RNAP while rewinding them behind.
ATP hydrolysis is a catabolic reaction process in which chemical energy stored in high-energy phosphoanhydride bonds in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is released by producing work in the form of mechanical energy after splitting these bonds, for example, in muscles.
When one phosphate group is eliminated by trying to break a phosphoanhydride bond, a process known as hydrolysis occurs, releasing energy and converting ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP). When phosphate is eliminated from ADP to form adenosine monophosphate, energy is also released (AMP).
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two cell, four cell, eight cell and morula stages of early embryonic development represent ____
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Two cell, four cell, eight cell and morula stages of early embryonic development represent cleavage phase where cells increase in number but are smaller than the zygote.
Embryo development refers to the different stages in the development of an embryo. Embryonic development of plants and animals vary. Even in animals, every species undergoes different stages during embryonic development 2010. Embryonic development involves intricate coordination of molecular, cellular, and tissue-level processes that must occur according to strict schedules of time and location.
While the gestation periods of mammals vary greatly (from 2 weeks in some rodents to nearly 2 years in elephants), the sequence of developmental events and their molecular underpinnings is similar from species to species. This biological correspondence provides the rationale for extrapolating the results obtained in animal studies to humans. Despite this biological consistency within embryos, there are differences among species with regard to various aspects of pregnancy. It is these differences that are explored in risk assessment.
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The National Park Service (NPS) has been monitoring the continued decline of
the wolf population on Isle Royale. Scientists have found that many of the wolves
inherit bad hips because of genetic inbreeding. The bad hips reduce their ability
to prey upon the moose.
7. What is the predator on Isle Royale?
8. What is the prey on Isle Royale?
9. How did the predator arrive on Isle Royale?
10. Explain why this is a good place for scientists to do a long term study.
Answers
7. The predator on Isle Royale is the wolf.
8. The prey on Isle Royale is the moose.
9. It is believed that the wolves on Isle Royale arrived on the island by crossing an ice bridge from the mainland during a period of low lake levels.
10. Isle Royale is a good place for scientists to do a long-term study of predator-prey dynamics because it is a relatively isolated island with a relatively small and stable population of wolves and moose.
What is NPS?The National Park Service (NPS) is a United States federal agency that is responsible for the management and conservation of the country's national parks, monuments, and other protected areas. The NPS was established in 1916 with the passage of the National Park Service Organic Act.
The agency's mission is to "preserve unimpaired the natural and cultural resources and values of the national park system for the enjoyment, education, and inspiration of this and future generations." To achieve this mission, the NPS works to protect and preserve the natural and cultural resources found within the national park system, as well as provide opportunities for the public to experience and learn about these resources. The NPS also works to ensure that the national park system is accessible and welcoming to all visitors.
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A marine biologist randomly tagged and measured sharks in the Atlantic Ocean to study their characteristics and habits. The sample included 150 hammerhead sharks, of which 60% measured more than 12 feet in length. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the data?
O More than half of the sharks in the Atlantic Ocean are longer than 12 feet long.
O Approximately 40% of the shark population in the Atlantic Ocean is 12 feet long or less.
O Less than half of the hammerhead sharks in the Atlantic Ocean are longer than 12 feet long.
O Hammerhead sharks are among the longest sharks in the Atlantic Ocean.
Answers
A marine biologist randomly tagged and measured sharks in the Atlantic Ocean to study their characteristics and habits and concluded that more than half of the sharks in the Atlantic Ocean are longer than 12 feet long..
What are sharks afraid of?Sharks look for dolphins before dozing off, just way humans check under our beds for monsters. Yes, even the toughest kids on the underwater playground avoid swimming near dolphins.What attracts a shark to a human?Sharks can indeed detect very little amounts of blood in water. They are, however, only truly drawn to the blood and body fluids of fish and marine mammals, which are their natural prey, according to certain studies. Sharks are known to react most strongly to the odors given off by damaged or distressed prey, according to experiments done in the history.
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____ asserts that intergroup hostility and prejudice are natural consequences of group competition.
Answers
Answer:
Realistic group conflict theory
A biochemist has discovered a new membrane protein in a eukaryotic cell. To determine the type of membrane protein, she decides to perform laboratory tests on the cell. She discovers that the protein is an integral membrane protein. Select the experimental scenarios that correctly support the finding that the protein is an integral membrane protein? Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer, then try to dissolve the protein with a nonpolar solvent. If the protein is solubilized in the nonpolar solvent but not in the aqueous buffer, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer, then try to dissolve the protein with a detergent solution. If the protein is solubilized in the detergent solution but not in the aqueous buffer, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer at low pH, then try to dissolve the protein with an aqueous buffer at neutral pH. If the protein is solubilized in the buffer at low pH but not in the buffer at neutral pH, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer containing a chelating agent that removes Ca²+, then try to dissolve the protein in an aqueous buffer without the chelating agent. If the protein is solubilized in the buffer with the chelating agent but not in the buffer without the chelating agent, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer containing urea, then try to dissolve the protein in an aqueous buffer without urea. If the protein is solubilized in the buffer with urea but not in the buffer without urea, it is probably an integral protein.
Answers
Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer, then try to dissolve the protein with a nonpolar solvent. If the protein is solubilized in the nonpolar solvent but not in the aqueous buffer, it is probably an integral protein.
Large macro- and biomolecules consisting of one or more extended chains of amino acid residues are known as proteins. In living things, proteins perform a number of functions, such as catalysing metabolic processes, replicating DNA, reacting to stimuli, giving cells and organisms structure, and transporting substances. The primary way that proteins differ from one another is the arrangement of their amino acids, which is determined by the nucleotide sequence of their genes and typically allows a protein to fold into a certain 3D structure that controls its function.
The complete question is:
A biochemist has discovered a new membrane protein in a eukaryotic cell. To determine the type of membrane protein, she decides to perform laboratory tests on the cell. She discovers that the protein is an integral membrane protein. Select the experimental scenarios that correctly support the finding that the protein is an integral membrane protein?
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radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. the part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. if true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes, the f1 will be expected to exhibit which of the following phenotypes?
Answers
Complete and incomplete dominance are inheritance patterns and differ in how alleles interact in a heterozygous state and how many phenotypes the gene expresses. Genotype: RrLl. Phenotype: purple and long.
What are complete and incomplete dominace?
Complete dominance occurs when the dominant allele hides the expression of the recessive allele in heterozygous individuals. The gene expresses only two phenotypes.
Incomplete dominance occurs when neither of the alleles covers the expression of the other in heterozygous individuals, and the result is an intermediate phenotype. This gene expresses three phenotypes.
In the exposed example,
flower color ⇒ incomplete dominance ⇒ red, purple, or white.eating part ⇒ complete dominance ⇒ oval or longCross: true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes
Parentals) RRLL x rrll
F1) 100% RrLl, expressing purple flowers (Rr) and long eating part (Ll)
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according to the biopsychosocial approach, which of the following factors interact to produce the problems experienced by adolescents? (select all that apply.
Answers
According to the biopsychosocial approach, the Psychological, social, and biological. factors interact to produce the problems experienced by adolescents.
In order to comprehend health, illness, and the delivery of health care, the biopsychosocial approach systematically takes into consideration social, psychological, and biological factors as well as their intricate interactions. Natural systems are a continuum along which exist biological, psychological, and social factors. In order to enhance the dyadic relationship between clinicians and their patients and multidisciplinary approaches to patient care, the biopsychosocial model assists primary care physicians in comprehending interactions among the biological and psychosocial components of illnesses.
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which of the following structure contains reflex centers for movements of the eyes head and nech in response to visual and other stimuli and reflex center for movement of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli
Answers
to culture the bacteria and obtain the protein product, the bacteria must grow. select the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the e-coli bacterial cell.
Answers
The appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the e-coli bacterial cell is to check the nutrient broth to which ampicillin has been added.
E. coli bacteria are an example of a prokaryotic cell type. E. coli is a nonsporulating Gram-negative, facultative anaerobe coliform bacterium. Escherichia coli (E. coli) is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped, transcriptional anaerobic bacterium with cells that are typically 2.0 m long and 0.25-1.0 m in diameter. Theodor Escherich first described this microorganism in 1885. Most E. coli strains colonize the gastrointestinal tracts of humans and animals as part of the normal flora.
A plasmid is a small extrachromosomal DNA molecule that exists within a cell and can reproduce separately of chromosomal DNA. Plasmids are most commonly found in bacteria as circular, double-stranded DNA molecules; however, plasmids can also be found in archaea and eukaryotic organisms.
Meningitis (infection of the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord) and infectious diseases of the throat, sinuses, lungs, reproductive organs, urinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are all treated with ampicillin.
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Corynebacterium, Clostridium, Escherichia, Klebsiella, Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus, and Pasteurella are considered to be generally more vulnerable to ampicillin and amoxicillin, though many of these bacteria have attained resistance.
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Complete question :
Organisms share many conserved core processes and features, including transcription and translation using a uniform genetic code. Scientists have used these shared processes and features in biotechnology. For example, for the process of some transformations, a plasmid is constructed when a eukaryotic gene of interest is added with an antibiotic resistant gene such beta-lactamase, which is used for ampicillin resistance. This plasmid is then inserted into a prokaryotic bacterial cell, such as E-coli, through a transformation process that leads to the production of the product protein from the eukaryotic organism. To culture the bacteria and obtain the protein product, the bacteria must grow. Select the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the E-coli bacterial cell.
How would transcription be affected if a gene that needed to be expressed was missing its promotor?
Answers
Answer:
it can't be used to make a protein in that cell.
Explanation:
If a gene is not transcribed in a cell, it can't be used to make a protein in that cell. If a gene does get transcribed, it is likely going to be used to make a protein (expressed). In general, the more a gene is transcribed, the more protein that will be made.
The transcription is affected as when the gene has not been transcribed the protein will not make. When a gene is transcribed, protein synthesis can happen.
What is gene transcription?Gene expression begins with transcription. To create an RNA molecule, the DNA sequence of a gene must be copied. RNA polymerases, which join nucleotides to create an RNA strand, carry out transcription (using a DNA strand as a template).
A gene cannot be used to produce a protein in a cell if it is not transcribed there. If a gene gets transcribed, it will probably be used to produce a protein (expressed). In general, more protein will be produced the more a gene is transcribed.
Therefore, the transcription is impacted since the protein cannot be produced if the gene is not transcribed. Protein synthesis can take place when a gene is transcribed.
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can you right me a 5 page esa. about the tabernacle hill lava tubes in Utah
Answers
Answer:
The Tabernacle Hill lava tubes in Utah are a fascinating and unique geological feature that offers a glimpse into the Earth's past. Located in the western part of the state, these lava tubes are the result of volcanic activity that occurred millions of years ago.
The lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are part of a larger network of volcanic features that make up the western part of Utah. The area is home to a variety of geological wonders, including towering mountains, deep canyons, and vast deserts. But the lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are particularly interesting because of the way they were formed.
When a volcano erupts, it spews forth a river of molten rock, or lava, that flows down the sides of the volcano and onto the surrounding landscape. As the lava cools and hardens, it forms a thick crust on the surface. But in some cases, the lava continues to flow underneath the crust, creating a tube or tunnel.
The lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill were formed in this way. Over time, the lava that flowed underneath the surface cooled and solidified, creating a network of underground tunnels. The crust on the surface eventually eroded away, revealing the lava tubes that lay beneath.
Today, the lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are a popular destination for hikers, geologists, and nature enthusiasts. The tubes are easily accessible, and visitors can explore them on foot or by following well-marked trails. Some of the tubes are large enough to walk through, while others are smaller and require crawling or climbing.
In addition to the lava tubes, the area around Tabernacle Hill is home to a variety of plants and animals. The rugged terrain and harsh climate have created a unique ecosystem that is home to many species of birds, mammals, and reptiles. Some of the most interesting animals that can be found in the area include bighorn sheep, pronghorn antelope, and desert tortoises.
The lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are a fascinating geological feature that offers a glimpse into the Earth's past. They are a testament to the power of volcanic activity and the forces of nature that shape our planet. And for anyone who loves hiking, geology, or the great outdoors, a visit to the Tabernacle Hill lava tubes is a must.
Explanation:
What is one way that a frame
shift mutation could occur?
Answers
Answer:sanasn
Explanation:
an
which two processes must happen before cells can make large amounts of ATP for every glucose molecule split in two?
A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
C. the krebs cycle
D. the electron transport chain
Answers
The two processes that must happen before cells can make large amounts of ATP for every glucose molecule split in two are: (D) The electron transport chain; and (C) The Krebs cycle.
What is ETC and Kreb's cycle?The Electron Transport Chain (also known as the ETC) is a sequence of electron complexes that electrons must travel through in order to generate ATP via redox reactions. There are four protein complexes that electrons go through on their way. Additionally, there is a fifth complex that is present at the very end that serves the role of the ATPase.
The Krebs Cycle is a set of chemical processes that work to oxidise acetyl coenzyme A (Acetyl CoA) and create energy as a byproduct of this process. Within the matrix of the mitochondria, the procedure is carried out.
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which of the following describes a mutation that would lead to an increase in the frequency of nondisjunction?
Answers
Option C. A mutation affecting checkpoint 3 proteins that prevent attachment of spindle fibers damage. describes a mutation that would lead to an increase in the frequency of nondisjunction.
The detachment of the homologous chromosomes relies upon the get-together of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate in the tropical district, when each chromosome is connected with its comparing axle fiber. Spindle assembled checkpoint (SAC) is the assembly of specific proteins that check to see if the spindle fibers are properly attached to the chromosome or not. proteins that are connected to checkpoint 3.
these proteins investigate whether the arrangement of the shafts with every chromosome is correct, and afterward flag the metaphase to anaphase progress. This causes the development of the chromosome towards the post.
Any change to SAC causes expulsion of this designated spot, and chance emerges that shaft fiber can not append the chromosomes appropriately and there is the unusual development of the chromosome causing non-disjunction.
Any mutation in the checkpoint 2 protein enables the production of defective DNA, which can then proceed to the subsequent phase of the cell cycle. The second type of defective DNA results in point mutations at the nucleotide level and is not associated with non-disjunction because it does not deal with the chromosome arrangement within the cell.
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(complete question)
image attached
classify each phrase as applying to the lytic cycle, the lysogenic cycle, or both types of reproductive cycles of phages. drag the descriptions into the appropriate bins
Answers
Each phrase is classified as:
Lytic cycles- phages assembled, cell lysed, the host is destroyed
Lysogenic cycle- cells reproduce, DNA integrates,
both- viral genes are replicated.
There are two other ways that phages can multiply.
(1) the lytic cycle and (2) the lysogenic cycle.
The host cell dies or is lysed in the lytic cycle, whereas the lysogenic cycle keeps the host cell alive.
Lytic cycle:
New phages are assembled from viral DNA and proteins.The cell lysedThe host is destroyedLysogenic cycle:
The cells reproduce normallyThe viral DNA integrates into the chromosomes of the host cell.Both cycles:
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(complete question)
Reproductive cycles of a bacteriophage Classify each phrase as applying to the lytic cycle, the lysogenic cycle, or both types of reproductive cycles of phages. Drag the descriptions into the appropriate bins. View Available Hint(s) the cells lysed (broken open) viral genes are replicated new phages are assembled from viral DNA and proteins the viral DNA integrates into the chromosome of the host cell the host is destroyed the cell reproduces normally lytic cycle lysogenic cycle both cycles
Which activity performed by a medical professional is primarily based on an understanding of physics?
A.
determining whether the level of hemoglobin in blood is sufficient
B.
using a blood pressure monitor to find a patient's blood pressure
C.
analyzing a patient's blood test report to determine treatment
D.
determining which tests a patient needs
E.
checking the color of a patient's eyes for suspected jaundice
Reset Next
Answers
A medical expert uses a blood pressure monitor to check a patient's blood pressure, which is a task that significantly depends on their understanding of physics.
Option B is correct
Blood is used by the body for several essential functions,
such as the following:
delivering oxygen to tissues (bound to hemoglobin, which is carried in red cells)
nutrients including glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids are readily available (in the blood or bound to plasma proteins, like blood lipids)
the elimination of waste products such urea, lactic acid, and carbon dioxide
Two examples of immunological processes are the movement of white blood cells and the identification of foreign substances using antibodies.
Blood is transformed from a liquid to a semisolid gel during coagulation, a mechanism used to halt bleeding after a blood vessel ruptures.
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Label the parts of the neuron:
Axon, axon bulb, axon hillock, dendrite, myelin/Schwann cell, nucleus, node of Ranvier
A.
B.
Answers
Nerve cells, or neuronal cells, are the cells that process and distribute chemical and electrical information throughout the body. The nervous system's primary signaling unit is the neuron.
Are chemical and electrical signals carried by neurons?The nervous system's most important component is the neuron, or nerve cell. It communicates chemically as well as electrically. Information is transmitted through the movement of an electrical charge (also known as an impulse) within the neuron itself.
What else are neurons' cells called?The cells that are responsible for receiving sensory input from the external world, sending motor commands to our muscles, and transforming and relaying the electrical signals at every step in between are called neurons (also known as nerve cells) and are the fundamental units of the brain and nervous system.
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3. Which of the following screens out low energy wavelengths of the solar energy? a. water b. ozone c. carbon dioxide d. Carbon dioxide & water
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Ozone is able to screen out low energy wavelengths of solar energy, specifically ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Ozone absorbs UV radiation from the sun, protecting life on Earth from the harmful effects of excessive UV exposure.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) are both greenhouse gases that absorb and trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere, but they do not screen out low energy wavelengths of solar energy. Instead, they absorb and re-emit longwave infrared radiation, which helps to regulate the temperature of the Earth.
In summary, the answer to the question is: b. ozone.
for each photograph below, identify the plant as a monocot or dicot. give as many reasons as you can for each answer
Answers
Correct option is A)
The given diagram shows the structure of a monocot leaf.
A- It is bulliform cells which are present in the upper epidermis which actively participates in motor action.
B- Photosynthesis is carried by loosely packed mesophyll cells.
C- Vascular bundles helps in the conduction of organic materials.
D- Transpiration regulated by the guard cell.
So, the correct answer is option A.
Even though different species carry out photosynthesis in various ways, the process always starts when energy from light is absorbed by proteins called reaction centres, which contain the coloured pigments/chromophores green chlorophyll (and other colours). In contrast to bacteria, which have these proteins integrated in the plasma membrane, plants store these proteins in organelles called chloroplasts, which are most prevalent in leaf cells. These light- and energy-dependent processes strip electrons from the appropriate substances, such water, to produce oxygen gas.
The complete question is:
for each photograph below, identify the plant as a monocot or dicot. give as many reasons as you can for each answer:
A) Motor Action
B) Conduction
C) Transpiration
D) Photosynthesis
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radish flowers may be red, purple, or blue. a cross between a red-flowered plant and a blue-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. the flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?
Answers
The flower color trait in radishes is an example of incomplete dominance. The red and blue alleles interact to produce a third phenotype, which is a blend of the phenotypes of the two parents.
Radish flowers may be red, purple, or blue, and their flower color is an example of incomplete dominance. Incomplete dominance is a type of genetic interaction in which one allele (or version) of a gene is not completely dominant over the other allele. In this case, the cross between a red-flowered plant and a blue-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring because the red and blue alleles interact with one another, producing a phenotype (flower color) that is different than either of the parental phenotypes.
In complete dominance, a single allele will always dominate the other, with the result that the phenotype of the offspring is always the same as the phenotype of the parent with the dominant allele. In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the offspring is a blend of the phenotypes of the two parents, rather than being identical to one of the parents. In the case of the radish flowers, the red and blue alleles interact with one another to produce a purple phenotype.
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if the court allows someone with a first operating under the influence ( oui ) conviction to complete an alcohol education course . what happens to the license suspension ?
Answers
Answer: Apple
Explanation: if u eat apple pie WITHOUT ICE CREAM u are banned from eating sweets the apple pie HAS to be warm thank me later MERRY CHRISTMASS
Dynamic cell seeding allows higher cell seeding efficacy to engineered 3D scaffolds therefore it is mostly preffered by the scientists. Fibroblasts tend to attach on the silicone tube wall but this stiuation is not appropriate for reching maximum cell seeding efficacy on a scaffold. Preventing cells for not to attach on silicone tube, applied force on a single fibroblast should exceed 6500 picoNewton (required minimum force). In the designed cell culture dynamic fibroblast seeding experiment, silicone tube inner diameter is 3.8 mm and fibroblasts surface area is 450 μm2. Please calculate the minimum flow rate as liter per minute of the fibroblasts included cell culture media through silicone tube to prevent fibroblasts adhesion on silicone tubes.
Answers
The minimum flow rate as liter per minute of the fibroblasts included cell culture media through silicone tube to prevent fibroblasts adhesion on silicone tubes is 769.210527 L/min.
What is the minimum flow rate about?To calculate the minimum flow rate of the fibroblasts-included cell culture media through the silicone tube, we have to use the following equation:
Flow rate (L/min) = (Force (pN) * Surface area (μm^2)) / (Viscosity * Inner diameter (mm))
In this case, the force applied on a single fibroblast should exceed 6500 picoNewtons, the surface area of the fibroblasts is 450 μm2, the viscosity of the cell culture media is typically around 0.5-1.5, and the inner diameter of the silicone tube is 3.8 mm. Plugging these values into the equation gives us:
Flow rate (L/min) = (6500 pN * 450 μm^2) / (1.0 * 3.8 mm)
= (2925000 pNμm^2) / (1.0 Pas * 3.8 mm)
= 769210.527 pNμm^2 / (Pas * mm)
= 769.210527 L/min
So the minimum flow rate of the fibroblasts-included cell culture media through the silicone tube to prevent fibroblast adhesion would be around 769.210527 L/min.
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